The thing is, all those who commit sodomy are sodomites. In the Bible, the Lord said no man should be a sodomite, and all sodomites were destroyed. So, as per the Bible, no sodomy, and no sodomites. That much is plain and clear. That is what I tried to bring in by quoting the verses.
Secondly, the people of Sodom and Gomorrah were indeed destroyed for the sin of sodomy, which I understand is homosexual sins. We read of such behaviour in Israel in Judges 19:22. They are sinful acts which are abominable in the sight of God.
The word SODOMITE is a Bible word (1611), which is NOT modern! It's 400 years old.
Now it appears that you are discussing about "sodomy" within a relationship between a man and his wife. I am not sure if the word "sodomy" itself can be applied in a Biblical sense within a husband-wife relationship. I always thought sodomy refers to homosexuality.
However, I understand the sense in which brother Koshy is using that term "sodomy" within a marriage relationship. Irrespective of whether you call it "sodomy" or something else, I think what brother Koshy is referring to is UNNATURAL. I think you would agree with it.
Romans 1:24, "Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves". Please notice that in this verse, there is no specific mention of women or men. That does not come until verses 26 and 27. What verse 24 talks about is UNCLEANNESS, and DISHONOURING of bodies. This I believe is the basis for brother Koshy's assertion. I think he is right.
Further in verse 26, "for even their women did change the natural use into that which is AGAINST NATURE." Kindly note that while verse 26 includes same sex relationships between women, the verse is not limited to that. It encompasses all that can be included as changing the natural use into that which is unnatural.
In Christ Jesus,