I have a couple of questions...
1. How is IVF, "not biblical" according to you ? How is IVF "under the category of adultery and fornication" according to you ?
2. You mentioned verses in the scriptures that talked about the barreness of a woman.
I believe that God uses various ways to fulfill his purposes and not all maybe understood by us.
Can you say with complete confidence that IVF is definitely not a way that God uses science "to open up a womb" ?...because science does explain in 90% cases why "the womb is closed".
3. This very science is also used by us to "open" and "close" the womb, i.e to decide when it is convenient for us to recieve "the fruit of the womb...His reward".
So how does then one become ok to do and the other not ?
4. You mentioned various things that go wrong with IVF, but can you tell us the percentage of times mistakes have been made in a given period ? Because evrything has risks...even a normal pregnancy has so many, many risks that doctors tell you.So bearing in mind the emotional needs of a couple to have a child, how does cost and risk outweigh the need for having a child in their lives?
5. you mentioned various women in the bible whom the Lord chose them to be barren...my question once again...can we say with complete confidence that these women if they lived in a time where procedures like IVF was there, they would not use it or try it?
MAybe you can help me out...
You made a point we are all forgetting...that whatever we decide, if it isn't in God's will, it won't happen, no matter what you try...thank you, sir. Because that is the bottom line.
I don't think IVF would apply to women who absolutely cannot carry a pregnancy to term in their womb for "n" no.of reasons. But there are so many other parameters in a human body that prohibit a couple from having children naturally. And the question was "only" if the donors were the couple themselves..not outside sources.